Category Archives: Study Material

ICD 10 Questions

Practice Questions for 2018 – ICD – 10 CM

  1.  Patient presents with a sore throat and fever for 2 days. Assessment: Positive strep test with a diagnosis of tonsillitis.
  2. A female patient comes in with vaginal itching and burning on urination. Wet prep is positive for yeast vaginitis.
  3. A patient with a malignant neoplasm of the right ovary is being treated by the oncologist for anemia due to tumor.
  4. A patient states that she was begun to have symptoms of her depression again. she is tired, having trouble concentrating, and often agitated. she has a persistent low mood and lack of interest in activities. She is diagnosed with recurrence of her mild depression.
  5. Patient presents after working out and doing sit ups. She is experiencing musculoskeletal pain. She is diagnoses with muscle strain of abdominal muscles.
  6. A man with prostate cancer comes to the hospital for his second radiation therapy treatment.
  7. A former smoker is seen for a follow up. He has coronary artery disease with unstable angina.
  8. A 14 year old patient is seen in the ED for 1st degree burn on his right buttock. He was running away from a firework that tipped over and it struck him. He was at home in the yard.
  9. A patient comes in for her mammogram results. The patient is found to have microcalcifications.
  10. Patient present for vaginal bleeding for the last couple months, at irregular times other than when she is having her period. She is not in pain, and this generally occurs after intercourse. GYN exam is performed and a cervical polyp is seen in the cervical OS. The polyp is removed with ring forceps and sent to pathology.
  11. Patient presents with left shoulder pain after lifting heavy boxes in the attic. She did not fall but struck the wall. On exam  she can not raise the arm or place it behind her back without pain. She is diagnosed with a muscle strain of the left shoulder.
  12. A female patient is seen for obesity.
  13. An asthmatic patient presents for a check up. She has mild persistent asthma that is currently well controlled. She does, however, continue to smoke cigarettes. She states she has tried to quit, but just can’t. She is dependent, having smoked for 25 years.
  14. A patient comes in for a 22 week G2P1 complains of vaginal discharge. Wet prep shows Candida Vaginitis and the patient is instructed to use mycolog cream externally.
  15. A patient is seen by the ENT for chronic ethmoidal sinusitis.




  1. J03.00
  2. B37.3
  3. C56.1, D63.0
  4. F33.0
  5. S39.011A
  6. Z51.0, C61
  7. I25.110, Z87.79
  8. T21.15XA
  9. R92.0
  10. N84.1
  11. S46.912A
  12. E66.9
  13. J45.30
  14. O23.592, Z3A.22, B37.3
  15. J32.2



CPC Practice Questions 2017 – Part 6

Laboratory and Pathology

  1. What is/are the code(s) for thawing 4 units of fresh frozen plasma?
  • 86927
  • 86931
  • 86927 x 4
  • 86931 x 4
  1. The code for sweat collection by iontophoresis can be found in what section of the Pathology Chapter of CPT®?
  • Cytopathology
  • Hematology
  • Chemistry
  • Other Procedures
  1. A patient will be undergoing a transplant and needs HLA tissue typing with DR/DQ multiple antigen and lymphocyte mixed culture. How will these services be coded?
  • 86805-26, 86817
  • 86817, 86821
  • 86816-26, 86821
  • 86806-26, 86817
  1. A physician orders a quantitative FDP. What CPT® code is reported?
  • 85362
  • 85370
  • 85366
  • 85378
  1. A patient’s mother and sister have been treated for breast cancer. She has blood drawn for cancer gene analysis with molecular pathology testing. She has previously received genetic counseling. Blood will be tested for full sequence analysis and common duplication or deletion variants (mutations) in BRCA1, BRCA2 (breast cancer 1 and 2). What CPT® code is reported for this molecular pathology procedure?
  • 81200
  • 81211
  • 81206
  • 81213
  1. A patient with AIDS presents for follow up care. An NK (natural killer cell) total count is ordered. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
  • 86359
  • 86361, 86359
  • 86703
  • 86357
  1. A patient has partial removal of his lung. The surgeon also biopsies several lymph nodes in the patient’s chest which are examined intraoperatively by frozen section and sent with the lung tissue for Pathologic examination. The pathologist also performs a trichrome stain. What CPT® codes are reported for the lab tests performed?
  • 88309 x 2, 88313
  • 88307, 88305×2, 88332
  • 88309, 88305, 88313, 88331
  • 88309, 88307, 88313
  1. A couple with inability to conceive has fertility testing. The semen specimen is tested for volume, count, motility and a differential is calculated. The findings indicate infertility due to oligospermia. What CPT® and ICD-9-CM codes are reported?
  • 89310, 89320, V26.21
  • 89320, 606.1
  • 89257, 606.9, V26.21
  • 89264, 606.1
  1. In a legal hearing to determine child support there is a dispute about the child’s paternity. The court orders a paternity test, and a nasal smear is taken from the plaintiff and the child. The plaintiff is confirmed as the father of the child. Choose the CPT®, ICD-9-CM codes and modifier for the paternity testing.
  • 89190-32, V26.39
  • 86900, V70.4
  • 86910-32, V70.4
  • 86910, V26.39
  1. A virus is identified by observing growth patterns on cultured media. What is this type of identification is called?
  • Definitive
  • Quantitative
  • Qualitative
  • Presumptive


  1. A female patient fell on the floor as she got out of bed. She has no known head trauma. She noticed some slight stiffness in her joints and weakness in her lower extremity muscles, with slight stiffness in her arm joints. The physician decided to test for possible multiple sclerosis (MS). She was sent to a clinic providing somatosensory studies. The testing included upper and lower limbs. What CPT®  codes are reported?
  • 95938
  • 95926
  • 95925, 95926
  • 95928
  1. 64-year-old patient came to the emergency department complaining of chest pressure. The physician evaluated the patient and ordered a 12 lead EKG. Findings included signs of acute cardiac damage. Appropriate initial management was continued by the ED physician who contacted the cardiologist on call in the hospital. Admission to the cardiac unit was ordered. No beds were available in the cardiac unit and the patient was held in the ED. The cardiologist left the ED after completing the evaluation of the patient.

Several hours passed and the patient was still in the ED. During an 80-minute period, the patient experienced acute breathing difficulty, increased chest pain, arrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. The patient was managed by the ED physician during this 80-minute period. Included in the physician management were a new 12 lead EKG, endotracheal intubation and efforts to restore the patient’s breathing and circulation for 20 minutes. CPR was unsuccessful, the patient was pronounced dead after a total of 44 minutes critical care time, exclusive of other separately billable services. What CPT® codes are reported by the physician?

  • 99285-25, 93010 x 2, 31500, 92950
  • 99291-25, 31500, 93000, 92950
  • 99291-25, 99292-25, 93005-59 x 2, 31500
  • 99291-25, 31500, 92950

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

  1. A patient with Sickle cell anemia with painful sickle crisis received normal saline IV, 100 cc per hour to run over 5 hours for hydration in the physician’s office. She will be given Morphine & Phenergan, prn (as needed). What codes are reported?
  • 96360, 96361 x 4, J7050 x 2
  • 96360, 96361 x 3, J7030
  • 96360 x 5, J7050
  • 96360, J7030
  1. A patient with bilateral sensory hearing loss is fitted with a digital, binaural, behind the ear hearing aid. What HCPCS Level II and ICD-9-CM codes should be reported?
  • V5140, 389.11, V53.2
  • V5140, 389.22
  • V5261, V53.2, 389.11
  • V5261, V72.11, 389.11
  1. 5-year-old is brought in to see an allergist for generalized urticaria. The family just recently visited a family membe that had a cat and dog. The mother wants to know if her son is allergic to cats and dogs. The child’s skin was scratched with two different allergens. The physician waited 15 minutes to check the results. There was a flare up reaction to the cat allergen, but there was no flare up to the dog allergen. The physician included the test interpretation and report in the record.
  • 95024 x 2
  • 95027 x 2
  • 95004 x 2
  • 95018 x 2
  1. 42-year-old patient presented to the urgent care center with complaints of slight dizziness. He had received services at the clinic about 2 years ago. The patient related this episode happened once previously and his 51-year-old brother has a pacemaker. A chest X-ray with 2 views and an EKG with rhythm strip were ordered (equipment owned by the urgent care center). The physician detected no obvious abnormalities, but the patient was advised to see a cardiologist within the next 2 – 3 days. The physician interpreted and provided a report for the rhythm strip and Chest X-ray. What CPT® and ICD-9-CM codes are reported for the physician employed by the urgent care center who performed a Level 3 office visit in addition to the ancillary services?
  • 99213-25, 71020, 93040
  • 99283-25, 71010-26, 93010,
  • 99213-25, 71020-26, 93042
  • 99203-25, 71010, 93000
  1. 55-year-old male has had several episodes of tightness in the chest. His physician ordered a PTCA (percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty) of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The procedure revealed atherosclerosis in the native vessel. It was determined a stent would be required to keep the artery open. The stent was inserted during the procedure.
  • 92928-LD
  • 92920-LD, 92928
  • 92920-LD, 92929-59
  • 92920-LD, 92928-59
  1. A pregnant female is Rh negative and at 28 weeks gestation. The child’s father is Rh positive. The mother is given an injection of a high-titer Rho (D) immune globulin, 300 mcg, IM. What CPT®  codes are reported?
  • 90384, 96372
  • 90384, 90471
  • 90386, 96372
  • 90386, 90471
  1. A patient with hypertensive end stage renal failure, stage V, and secondary hyperparathyroidism is evaluated by the physician and receives peritoneal dialysis. The physician evaluates the patient once before dialysis begins. What CPT® and ICD-9-CM codes are reported?
  • 90945, 401.9, 585.5, 588.81
  • 90945, 403.91, 585.6, 588.81
  • 90947, 403.91, 588.81
  • 90947, 403.91, 585.5
  1. A patient with congestive heart failure and chronic respiratory failure is placed on home oxygen. Prescribed treatment is 2 L nasal cannula oxygen at all times. A home care nurse visited the patient to assist with his oxygen management. What CPT® and ICD-9-CM codes are reported?
  • 99503, 428.0, 518.83
  • 99504, 428.40, 518.83
  • 99503, 428.9, 518.82
  • 99503, 428.0, 518.82

Medical Terminology

  1. The meaning of the root “blephar/o” is:
  • Choroid
  • Eyelid
  • Sclera
  • Uvea
  1. The meaning of heteropsia (or anisometropia) is:
  • Blindness in half the visual field
  • Unequal vision in the two eyes
  • Double vision
  • Blindness in both eye
  1. The radiology term “fluoroscopy” is described as:
  • Technique using magnetism, radio waves and a computer to produce images
  • An X-ray procedure allowing the visualization of internal organs in motion
  • A scan using an X-ray beam rotating around the patient
  • Use of high-frequency sound waves to image anatomic structures
  1. Sialography is an X-ray of :
  • Sinuses
  • Salivary glands
  • Liver
  • Ventricles of the brain
  1. A projection is the path of the X-ray beam. If the projection is front to back it would be:
  • Lateral
  • Decubitis
  • Recumbent
  • Anteroposterior
  1. Cytopathology is the study of:
  • Tissue
  • Blood
  • Cells
  • Organs
  1. The process of preserving cells or whole tissues at extremely low temperatures is known as:
  • Cryotherapy c. Cryalgesia b. Cryopexy d. Cryopreservation
  • A gonioscopy is an examination of what part of the eye:
  • Anterior chamber of the eye c. Lacrimal duct b. Interior surface of the eye
  • Posterior segment


  1. Which cells produce hormones to regulate blood sugar?
  • Eosinophils
  • Hemoglobin
  • Pancreatic islets
  • Target cells
  1. Which part of the brain controls blood pressure, heart rate and respiration?
  • Cortex
  • Cerebellum
  • Cerebrum
  • Medulla
  1. What are chemicals which relay, amplify and modulate signals between a neuron and another cell?
  • Neurotransmitters
  • Interneurons
  • Hormones
  • Myelin
  1. Which of the following conditions results from an injury to the head? The symptoms include headache, dizziness and vomiting.
  • Meningitis
  • Concussion
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • Epilepsy
  1. Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following?
  • Production of tears
  • Production of vitreous
  • Production of zonules
  • Production of mydriatic agents
  1. Which of the following does NOT contribute to refraction in the eye?
  • Aqueous
  • Cornea
  • Macula
  • Lens
  1. A patient diagnosed with glaucoma has:
  • A lens that is no longer clear
  • Abnormally high intraocular pressure
  • Bleeding vessels on the retina
  • Corneal neovascularization
  1. Which of the following is true about the tympanic membrane?
  • It separates the middle ear from the inner ear
  • It separates the external ear from the middle ear
  • It sits within the middle ear
  • It sits within the inner ear

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam


How to Code Mastectomy & Breasts reconstruction procedures

Breast procedures (19000-19499) are divided according to category of procedure.

  1. Incision – 19000 – 19030
  2. Excision – 19081- 19272
  3. Introduction – 19281 – 19298
  4. Mastectomy – 19300 – 19307
  5. Repair and Reconstruction – 19316 – 19396

Percutaneous breast biopsies are reported with 19081-19086 based on the guidance method.

A location device (clip, metallic pellet, wire, needle, radioactive seed) placed without a biopsy is reported with 19281-19288 based on the guidance method.

breast reconstruction

Mastectomy  –  There are many mastectomy codes, and you need to carefully review the operative report to confirm whether pectoral muscles, axillary lymph nodes, or internal mammary lymph nodes were also removed. This information will be necessary to determine the correct mastectomy code.

Mastectomy for gynecomastia — This procedure is performed for treatment of gynecomastia. Gynecomastia is an abnormal condition of large breasts in males. In this procedure, the excess breast tissue is removed. Use code 19300 to report mastectomy for gynecomastia. This is a gender specific code and should be coded for male patients only.

Partial mastectomy – 19301  when only a portion of the breast tissue is removed. The surgeon may also refer to a partial mastectomy as a lumpectomy, quadrantectomy , tylectomy or segmentectomy

 If an axillary lymphadenectomy (sentinel node or other axillary node excision)is performed with a partial mastectomy, report the service with 19302.

Simple or complete mastectomy – 19303 when all of the subcutaneous tissue and breast tissue are removed and the nipple and skin may or may not be removed.  skin and muscle is left but all the breast tissue is removed.

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

Radical mastectomy – 19305 when entire breast is removed in addition to the pectoral muscles and axillary lymph nodes. Code 19306 reports another type of radical mastectomy that includes the internal mammary lymph nodes and is also known as an Urban type operation. When both axillary lymph nodes and the internal mammary lymph nodes are taken during this operative session, the pectoralis major and minor can be spared

Modified radical mastectomy – 19307  when breast is removed in addition to the axillary lymph nodes, and the pectoralis minor muscle may or may not be removed. The pectoralis major muscle is not removed in the modified radical mastectomy.

19316-19396 – For Breats Repair and reconstruction.

  • Breast reduction – 19318
  • Augmentation ,Breast enlargement – 19324, 19325
  • Breast reconstruction – 19357-19369

Reconstruction for 19357 includes the insertion of a tissue expander and the subsequent expansion. The tissue expander is placed to stretch the skin overlying the breast to allow for insertion of a permanent prosthesis.

Latissimus dorsi flap (19361) describes a procedure during which muscle and skin are taken from the patient’s back and used to reconstruct a breast. The tissue is attached to the chest wall and surrounding muscles to allow for a complete and more natural appearance.


TRAM reconstruction involves using the skin and muscles from the abdomen to create a breast. The advantage to this technique is that the tissue remains attached to its blood supply. For a single pedicle flap, report 19367. If the surgeon uses two pedicles of the rectus abdominis, report 19369. When the flaps are performed with microvascular anastomsis for the connection of additional blood vessels, you should call on 19368. Note that these codes include closure of the donor site.

Lastly, a free flap reconstruction (19364) occurs when skin, fat and muscle from any other area of the patient are taken to construct an aesthetically pleasing breast.

Important Guidelines

  1. Mastectomy procedures are unilateral procedures. To report bilateral performance, add modifier 50.
  2. Placement of fiducial marker is inclusive to code 19301.
  3. Reporting of axillary lymph node dissection during partial mastectomy (code 19302) does not depend on the incision made for axillary dissection but the extent of axillary node dissection.
  4. 38500, Biopsy or excision of lymph node(s); open, superficial and 38525, Biopsy or excision of lymph node(s); open, deep axillary node(s) should be reported for removal/sampling of few sentinel nodes without complete axillary dissection, as appropriate.

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

CPC Practice Questions for 2017 – Part 1

10000 Series

  1. The patient is seen in follow-up for excision of the basal cell carcinoma of his nose. I examined his nose noting the wound has healed well. His pathology showed the margins were clear. He has a mass on his forehead; he says it is from a piece of sheet metal from an injury to his forehead. He has an X-ray showing a foreign body, we have offered to remove it. After obtaining consent we proceeded. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic. I had drawn for him how I would incise over the foreign body. He observed this in the mirror so he could understand the surgery and agree on the location. I incised a thin ellipse over the mass to give better access to it, the mass was removed. There was a capsule around this, containing what appeared to be a black-colored piece of stained metal; I felt it could potentially cause a permanent black mark on his forehead. I offered to excise the metal, he wanted me to, so I went ahead and removed the capsule with the stain and removed all the black stain. I consider this to be a complicated procedure. Hemostasis was achieved with light pressure. The wound was closed in layers using 4-0 Monocryl and 6-0 Prolene. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
  2. The patient is here because the cyst in her chest has come to a head and is still painful even though she has been on antibiotics for a week. I offered to drain it for her. After obtaining consent, we infiltrated the area with 1 cc of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine, prepped the area with Betadine and incised opened the cyst in the relaxed skin tension lines of her chest, and removed the cystic material. There was no obvious purulence. We are going to have her clean this with a Q-tip. We will let it heal on its own and eventually excise it. I will have her come back a week from Tuesday to reschedule surgery. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
  3. . Patient has returned to the operating room to aspirate a seroma that has developed from a surgical procedure that was performed two days ago. A 16-gauge needle is used to aspirate 600 cc of non-cloudy serosanguinous fluid. What codes are reported?
  4. Operative Report

    PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Squamous cell carcinoma, scalp.

    POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Squamous carcinoma, scalp.

    PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Excision of Squamous cell carcinoma, scalp with Yin-Yang flap repair

    ANESTHESIA: Local, using 4 cc of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine.


    ESTIMATED BLOOD LOSS: Less than 5 cc.

    SPECIMENS: Squamous cell carcinoma, scalp sutured at 12 o’clock, anterior tip

    INDICATIONS FOR SURGERY: The patient is a 43-year-old white man with a biopsy-proven basosquamous cell carcinoma of his scalp measuring 2.1 cm. I marked the area for excision with gross normal margins of 4 mm and I drew my planned Yin-Yang flap closure. The patient observed these markings in two mirrors, so he can understand the surgery and agreed on the location and we proceeded.

    DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic. The patient was placed prone, his scalp and face were prepped and draped in sterile fashion. I excised the lesion as drawn to include the galea. Hemostasis was achieved with the Bovie cautery. Pathologic analysis showed the margins to be clear. I incised the Yin-Yang flaps and elevated them with the underlying galea. Hemostasis was achieved in the donor site using Bovie cautery. The flap rotated into the defect with total measurements of 2.9 cm x 3.2 cm. The donor sites were closed and the flaps inset in layers using 4-0 Monocryl and the skin stapler. Loupe magnification was used. The patient tolerated the procedure well.

    What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

    Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

  5. The patient is coming in for removal of fatty tissue of the posterior iliac crest, abdomen, and the medial and lateral thighs. Suction-assisted lipectomy was undertaken in the left posterior iliac crest area and was continued on the right and the lateral trochanteric and posterior aspect of the medial thighs. The medial right and left thighs were suctioned followed by the abdomen. The total amount infused was 2300 cc and the total amount removed was 2400 cc. The incisions were closed and a compression garment was applied. What CPT® code(s) are reported?
  6. Operative Report

    PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot ulceration.

    POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot ulceration.

    OPERATION PERFORMED: Debridement and split thickness autografting of left foot

    ANESTHESIA: General endotracheal.

    INDICATIONS FOR PROCEDURE: This patient with multiple complications from Type II diabetes has developed ulcerations which were debrided and homografted last week. The homograft is taking quite nicely; the wounds appear to be fairly clean; he is ready for autografting.

    DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: After informed consent the patient is brought to the operating room and placed in the supine position on the operating table. Anesthetic monitoring was instituted, internal anesthesia was induced. The left lower extremity is prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. Staples were removed and the homograft was debrided from the surface of the wounds. One wound appeared to have healed; the remaining two appeared to be relatively clean. We debrided this sharply with good bleeding in all areas. Hemostasis was achieved with pressure, Bovie cautery, and warm saline soaked sponges. With good hemostasis a donor site was then obtained on the left anterior thigh, measuring less than 100 cm2. The wounds were then grafted with a split-thickness autograft that was harvested with a patch of Brown dermatome set at 12,000 of an inch thick. This was meshed 1.5:1. The donor site was infiltrated with bupivacaine and dressed. The skin graft was then applied over the wound, measured approximately 60 cm2 in dimension on the left foot. This was secured into place with skin staples and was then dressed with Acticoat 18’s, Kerlix incorporating a catheter, and gel pad. The patient tolerated the procedure well. The right foot was redressed with skin lubricant sterile gauze and Ace wrap. Anesthesia was reversed. The patient was brought back to the ICU in satisfactory condition.

    What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

  7. Operative Report

    Diagnosis: Basal Cell Carcinoma

    Procedure: Mohs micrographic excision of skin cancer.

    Site: face left lateral canthus eyelid

    Pre-operative size: 0.8 cm

    Indications for surgery: Area of high recurrence, area of functional and/or cosmetic importance Discussed procedure including alternative therapy, expectations, complications, and the possibility of a larger or deeper defect than expected requiring significant reconstruction. Patient’s questions were answered.

    Local anesthesia 1:1 marcaine and 1% lidocaine with epinephrine. Sterile prep and drape.

    Stage 1: The clinically apparent lesion was marked out with a small rim of normal appearing tissue and excised down to subcutaneous fat level with a defect size of 1.2 cm. Hemostasis was obtained and a pressure bandage placed. The tissue was sent for slide preparation. Review of the slides show clear margins for the site.

    Repair: Complex repair.

    Repair of Mohs micrographic surgical defect. Wound margins were extensively undermined in order to mobilize tissue for closure. Hemostasis was achieved. Repair length 3.4 cm. Narrative: Burrows triangles removed anteriorly (medial) and posteriorly (lateral). A layered closure was performed. Multiple buried absorbable sutures were placed to re-oppose deep fat. The epidermis and dermis were re-opposed using monofilament sutures. There were no complications; the patient tolerated the procedure well. Post-procedure expectations (including discomfort management), wound care and activity restrictions were reviewed. Written Instructions with urgent contact numbers given, follow-up visit and suture removal in 3-5 days

    What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

    1. Macromastia.
    2. Back pain.
    3. Neck pain.
    4. Shoulder pain.
    5. Shoulder grooving
    6. Intertrigo.


    1. Right breast reduction of 1950 g.
    2. Right free-nipple graft.
    3. Left breast reduction of 1915 g.
    4. Left free-nipple graft.

    INDICATIONS FOR SURGERY: The patient is a 43-year-old female with macromastia and associated back pain, neck pain, shoulder pain, shoulder grooving and intertrigo. She desired a breast reduction. Because of the

    extreme ptotic nature of her breasts, we felt she would need a free-nipple graft technique. In the preoperative holding area, we marked her for this free-nipple graft technique of breast reduction. The patient observed these markings so she could understand the surgery and agree on the location, and we proceeded. The patient also was morbidly obese with a body mass index of 54. Because of this, we felt she met the criteria for DVT prophylaxis, which included Lovenox injection. The patient understood this would increase her risk of bleeding. She also made it known she is a Jehovah’s Witness and refused blood products, but she did understand her risk of bleeding would significantly increase and we proceeded.

    DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was given 40 mg of subcutaneous Lovenox in the preoperative holding area. She was then taken to the operating room. Bilateral thigh-high TED hose, in addition to bilateral pneumatic compression stockings were used throughout the procedure. IV Ancef 1 g was given. Anesthesia was induced. Both arms were secured on padded arm boards using Kerlix rolls. A similar body bear hugger was placed. The chest and abdomen were prepped and draped in sterile fashion. I began by circumscribing around each nipple-areolar complex using a 42-mm areolar marker. On each side the free-nipple grafts were harvested. They were marked to be side specific and were stored on the back table in moistened lap sponges. Meticulous hemostasis was achieved using Bovie cautery. The tail of the apex of each breast was deepithelialized using the scalpel. I amputated the inferior portion of the breast from the right side. Again, meticulous hemostasis was achieved using the Bovie cautery. There were also large feeder vessels divided and ligated using either a medium Ligaclip or 3-0 silk tie sutures. I then moved to the left and again amputated the inferior portion of the breast. Meticulous hemostasis was achieved using the Bovie cautery. Each of these wounds were temporarily closed using the skin stapler. The patient was then sat up. I felt we had achieved a very symmetrical result. The new positions for the nipple-areolar complexes were marked with a 42-mm areolar marker and methylene blue. The patient was then placed in the supine position and the new positions for the nipple-areolar complexes were deepithelialized using the scalpel. Meticulous hemostasis was then achieved again using the Bovie cautery. The free-nipple grafts were then retrieved from the back table. They were each defatted using scissors and were placed in an onlay fashion on the appropriate side, and each was inset using 5-0 plain sutures. Vents were made in the skin graft to allow for the egress of fluid on each side. A vertical mattress suture was used, tied over a piece of Xeroform in critical areas of each of the nipple-areolar complexes. A Xeroform bolster wrapped over a mineral oil-moistened sponge was affixed to each of the nipple-areolar complexes using 5-0 nylon suture. The vertical and transverse incisions were closed using 3-0 Monocryl, both interrupted and running suture, and 5-0 Prolene. The patient tolerated the procedure well. Again, meticulous hemostasis was achieved using the Bovie cautery. She was given another 1 g of Ancef at the 2-hour mark by our anesthesiologist, and was taken to the recovery room in good condition.

    What CPT® codes are reported?

  9. INDICATIONS FOR SURGERY: The patient is an 82-year-old white male with biopsy-proven basal cell carcinoma of his right lower eyelid and cheek laterally. I marked the area for rhomboidal excision and I drew my planned rhomboid flap. The patient observed these markings in a mirror, he understood the surgery and agreed on the location and we proceeded.

    DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic. The face was prepped and draped in sterile fashion. I excised the lesion as drawn into the subcutaneous fat. Hemostasis was achieved using Bovie cautery. Modified Mohs analysis showed the margin to be clear. I incised the rhomboid flap as drawn and elevated the flap with a full-thickness of subcutaneous fat. Hemostasis was achieved in the donor site, the Bovie cautery was not used, hand held cautery was used. The flap was rotated into the defect. The donor site was closed and flap inset in layers using 5-0 Monocryl and 6-0 Prolene. The patient tolerated the procedure well. The total site measured 1.3 cm x 2.7 cm

    What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

  10. Wire placement in the lower outer aspect of the right breast was done by a radiologist the day prior to this procedure. During this operative session, the surgeon created an incision through the wire track and the wire track was followed down to its entrance into breast tissue. A nodule of breast tissue was noted immediately adjacent to the wire. This entire area was excised by sharp dissection, sent to pathology and returned as a benign lesion. Bleeders were cauterized, and subcutaneous tissue was closed with 3-0 Vicryl. Skin edges were approximated with 4-0 subcuticular sutures and adhesive strips were applied. The patient left the operating room in satisfactory condition. What should be the correct code(s) for the surgeon’s services?

    Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

CPC Practice questions

Practice Questions For CPC Exam 2017 – Part Two

Question 26

General anesthesia is administered to a 9-month-old undergoing a tracheostomy. Code the anesthesia service.

  1. 00320, 99100
  2. 00320
  3. 00326
  4. 00326, 99100

Question 27

65-year-old woman is one year post with B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. She is having recurrent fever and pain. Tumor recurrence was confirmed by CT studies and chest X-ray. She has failed prior chemotherapy and radiation treatments. A new treatment is being contemplated and she is referred for a radiopharmaceutical distribution imaging as a requirement before starting this new treatment. The provider injects small amounts of gamma-emitting radioactive material paying particular attention for potential reaction. A gamma camera is used to take planar images of the whole body for three days. Three sets of image data are interpreted. Qualitative assessment of distribution and determination of treatment with monoclonal antibody are provided. A report is dictated and placed in the medical record. Which CPT® code is reported?

  1. 78806-26
  2. 78802-26
  3. 78804-26
  4. 78801-26

Question 28

Due to an elevated CEA level two years following a colon resection, the patient’s oncologist ordered a diagnostic liver ultrasound. Which radiology code is reported for this encounter.

  1. 76700
  2. 78206
  3. 76705
  4. 76970

Question 29

52-year-old male has a 3.2 cm metastasized lung cancer in his left upper lobe. The tumor can not be removed by surgery due to the patient having severe respiratory conditions. He will be receiving sterotactic body radiation therapy management under image guidance. There is a delivery of 25 Gy for four fractions under direct supervision of the radiation oncologist. The patient’s treatment set up is assessed to manage the execution of the treatment to make any adjustments needed for accuracy and safety. The oncologist reviews and approves all the images used to locate the tumor and images of fields arranged to deliver the dose.  What CPT® and ICD-9-CM codes should be reported?

  1. 77373, V58.0, 162.9
  2. 77435, V58.0, 197.0
  3. 77435, 197.0, V58.0
  4. 77402, 162.9, V58.0

Question 30

A 42-year-old has a lesion on his pancreas. The physician passes the biopsy needle through the skin and removes tissue to be sent to pathology. Fluoroscopic guidance is used to obtain the biopsy. Physician’s report and interpretation is placed in the record. Code this encounter.

  1. 48100, 77002-26
  2. 48102, 77002-26
  3. 48120, 76942-26
  4. 48102, 76942-26

Question 31

Patient is undergoing in vitro fertilization to get pregnant. Following the retrieval of follicular fluid from the patient, the physician uses a microscope to examine the fluid to identify the ooctyes. What is the code for the laboratory service?

  1. 89250
  2. 89254
  3. 89255
  4. 89258

Question 32

22-year-old comes into the Emergency Department with convulsions. The ED physician orders a drug screening without identifying any specific drug class to be tested. The lab runs a multiple drug classes screening using an immunoassay. The lab report comes back positive for alcohol and benzodiazepines. The ED physician then orders a confirmatory test to be performed by the lab to confirm both positive results. What CPT® codes are reported?

  1. 80301, 80320, 80346
  2. 80300, 80320, 80346
  3. 80302 x 2, 80320 x 2, 80346 x 2
  4. 80300 x 2, 80320 x 2, 80346 x 2

Question 33

A pathologist performs a comprehensive consultation and report after reviewing a patient’s records, specimens and official findings from other sources. What is the correct code?

  1. 88325
  2. 99244
  3. 80502
  4. 88329

Question 34

Photodynamic therapy involving application of light externally to destroy premalignant lesions on the lower lip was provided to a 63-year-old patient. Code the encounter.

  1. 96570
  2. 96999
  3. 96567
  4. 96913

Question 35

A four-year-old patient presents with pain in the left forearm following a fall from a chair. The injury occurred one hour ago. Her mom applied ice to the injury but it does not appear to help. The ED physician performs a detailed history, expanded problem focused examination and medical decision making of moderate complexity. An X-ray is ordered, which shows a fracture of the distal end of the radius as read by the radiologist. The ED physician consults with an orthopedic surgeon. The ED physician performs moderate conscious sedation with Ketamine for 30 minutes. The fracture is reduced and cast applied by an orthopedic surgeon. The child was monitored with pulse oximetry, cardiac monitor and blood pressure by the ED physician frequently. The patient was discharged with a sling and requested to follow up with the orthopedic surgeon. Code the services performed by the ED physician.

  1. 99284-25, 99148
  2. 99283-25, 99148
  3. 99283-25, 99143
  4. 99284-25, 99143

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

Question 36

In the inpatient setting, the psychiatrist provides psychotherapy for 30 minutes to affect a change in the patient’s maladaptive behavior. What is the procedure code?

  1. 90845
  2. 90832
  3. 90847
  4. 90853

Question 37

CKD is a disease of which system?

  1. Circulatory
  2. Genitourinary
  3. Digestive
  4. Musculoskeletal

Question 38

A person who has nephritis has inflammation in what location?

  1. Gallbladder
  2. Nerve
  3. Uterus
  4. Kidney

Question 39

What is ascites?

  1. Fluid in the abdomen
  2. Enlarged liver and spleen
  3. Abdominal malignancy
  4. Abdominal tenderness

Question 40

Which of the following is a disorder of the facial nerve?

  1. Exotropia
  2. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
  3. Brachial plexis lesions
  4. Bell’s palsy

Question 41

Complete this series: Pulmonary, Aortic, Mitral, and ________are valves of the heart.

  1. Tricuspid
  2. Superior Vena Cava
  3. Carotid
  4. Atrium

Question 42

Which of the following terms is one who has an overload of sodium?

  1. Hyperkalemia
  2. Hyperpotassemia
  3. Hypernatremia
  4. Hypercalcemia

Question 43

The term paracentesis found in CPT® code 49082 means:

  1. A procedure performed to drain fluid that has accumulated in the abdominal cavity
  2. An abdominal incision is made to open the abdominal cavity for drainage
  3. Removal of tissue samples from the abdominal cavity by an open approach
  4. Removal of a cyst located in the abdominal cavity

Question 44

A 25-year-old is brought to the burn unit being rescued from a burning house. She sustained 25% second degree burns on her anterior trunk and back and 20% third degree burns on her legs and arms. Total body surface area burned is 45%. What ICD-9-CM code is reported for the burns classified according to the extent of body surface involved?

  1. 948.22
  2. 948.04
  3. 948.24
  4. 948.42

Question 45

The patient is a 75-year-old woman who is here for follow-up after an incident last week in which she had an FB lodged in her throat. An emergency esophagoscopy was performed and the piece of hamburger meat removed and biopsy performed. She is positive for Barrett’s esophagus. She has GERD which is currently being treated by medication and is here today to be evaluated for photodynamic therapy.

What diagnosis codes should be reported for today’s visit?

  1. 530.3, 530.85
  2. 935.1, 530.85, E915
  3. 935.1, 530.85, 530.81 E915
  4. 530.85, 530.81

Question 46

A 78-year-old patient, with known arrhythmia, presented to an outpatient clinic for the insertion of a cardiac event recorder. What is the proper HCPCS Level II code for this device?

  1. C1767
  2. C1764
  3. C1777
  4. E0616

Question 47

The physician performed manipulation of a closed fracture of the distal radius on a 12-year-old male. He placed a short arm fiberglass cast. What is the HCPCS Level II code for the supply?

  1. Q4012
  2. Q4011
  3. Q4010
  4. Q4009

Question 48

Which of the following statements regarding the ICD-9-CM coding conventions is TRUE?

  1. If the same condition is described as both acute and chronic and separate subentries exist in the Alphabetic Index at the same indentation level, code only the acute condition.
  2. Late effect codes are reported for a current acute phase of the injury or illness
  3. An ICD-9-CM code is still valid even if it has not been coded to the full number of digits required for that code.
  4. Signs and symptoms that are integral to the disease process should not be assigned as additional codes, unless otherwise instructed.

Question 49

Which modifier should be append to a CPT®, for which the provider had a patient sign an ABN form because there is a possibility the service may be denied because the patient’s diagnosis might not meet medical necessity for the covered service?

  1. GJ
  2. GA
  3. GB
  4. GY

Question 50

What is the patient’s right when it involves making changes in the personal medical record?

  1. Patient must work through an attorney to revise any portion of the personal medical information.
  2. They should be able to obtain copies of the medical record and request corrections of errors and mistakes.
  3. It is a violation of federal health care law to revise a patient medical record.
  4. Revision of the patient medical record depends solely on the facility’s compliance program policy.

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Find answers of these questions by visiting below link.

Answers – Practice Questions For CPC Exam 2017

CPC Exam Questions 2013CPC Exam Questions 2013

CPC Exam Questions 2013 – Part Five


Some radiology codes include two components. Often a radiologist will use the radiology equipment, which is known as the technical component, and the physician will provide the second half of the CPT code by supervising and interpreting the study. When this occurs what should the physician report?

  • The full CPT code
  • The CPT code with a modifier TC
  • The CPT with a modifier 26
  • The CPT with a modifier 52

A patient presents to the ER with intractable nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain that radiates into her pelvis. The physician orders a CT scan of the abdomen, first without contrast and then followed by contrast, and a CT of the pelvis, without contrast.

  • 74176, 74178-51
  • 74178 x2, 74177
  • 74178, 74176-51
  • 74178

A patient was in an MVA and his face struck the steering wheel. He had multiple contusions and facial swelling. The physician suspected a zygomatic-malar or maxilla fracture. The radiologist took an oblique anterior-posterior projection which showed the facial complex clearly. An anterior-posterior and lateral views were also taken.

  • 70250
  • 70150
  • 70120
  • 70100

If a prior study is available but it is documented in the medical records that there was inadequate visualization of the anatomy, then a diagnostic angiography may be reported in conjunction with an interventional procedure if modifier 59 is appended to the diagnostic S&I.

  • False
  • True

A physician performed a deep bone biopsy of the femur. The trocar was visualized and guided using a CAT scan and interpretation was provided.

  • 20225, 73700
  • 38221, 76998
  • 20225, 77012
  • 20245, 77012-26

HDR internal radiation therapy was performed by using a remote controlled MultiSource afterloader which was connected to 3 catheters. The 6 Ir-192 radioactive wire sources were released from the containment unit and were delivered beside the tumor within the body cavity, as pre-determined. After 15 minutes the sources were  removed from the patient and placed back into the containment unit.

  • 77777
  • 77786
  • 77790
  • 77762

A patient has a myocardial perfusion imaging study which included quantitative wall motion, ejection fraction by gated technique, and attenuation correction. The study was done during a cardiac stress test which was induced by using dipyridamole. The physician supervised, the interpretation and report were completed by the cardiologist.

  • 78453
  • 78451
  • 78453, 93016
  • 78451, 93016

A 35 year old mother carrying twin gestations, who has a three year old child with down syndrome, comes in for a prenatal screening. She is in her 12th week of pregnancy and the physician requests that the amount of fluid behind the necks of the fetuses be measured. A transabdominal approach was used.

  • 76801, 76802
  • 76811, 76812
  • 76813, 76814
  • 76816, 76816-59

A dialysis patient presents in the radiology department. His physician suspects that the tip of his Hickman’s catheter in his left forearm may have migrated from its original placement. The vascular surgeon on-call injects radiopaque iodine into the patient’s port and examines it under fluoroscopic imaging.

  • 75820
  • 36598, 75820, 76000
  • 36598, 75820
  • 36598

A written report signed by the interpreting physician should be considered an integral part of the radiological procedure or interpretation.

  • True
  • False

Pathology and Laboratory

A physician orders a patient’s blood be tested for levels of urea nitrogen, sodium, potassium, transferase alanine and aspartate amnio, total protein, ionized calcium, carbon dioxide, chloride, creatinine, glucose, and TSH.

  • 80053-52, 84443
  • 80048, 84443, 84155, 84460, 84450
  • 80047, 84460, 84450, 84155, 84443
  • 80051, 84520, 84460, 84450, 84155, 82330, 82565, 82947, 84443

A specimen labeled “right ovarian cyst” is received for examination. It consists of a smooth-walled, clear fluid filled cyst measuring 13x12x7 cm and weighing 1351 grams with fluid. Both surfaces of the wall are pink-tan, smooth and grossly unremarkable. No firm or thick areas or papillary structures are noted on the cyst wall externally or internally. After removal the fluid, the cyst weight 68 grams. The fluid is transparent and slightly mucoid.

  • 88307
  • 88305
  • 88304
  • 88300

A patient presents to the ED with chest pain, shortness of breath, and a history of congestive heart failure. The physician performs a 12 lead EKG which indicates a myocardial infarction without ST elevations. The physician immediately orders myoglobin, quantitative troponin, and CK enzyme levels to be run once every hour for three consecutive hours.

  • 83874 x3, 84484 x3, 82550 x3
  • 83874-91 x3, 84484-91 x3, 82250-91 x3
  • 83874, 83874-91 x2, 84484, 84484-91 x2, 82550, 82550-91 x2
  • 82250-76, 82250-91
  • 83874-99, 83874-76, 83874-91, 84484-99, 84484-76, 84484-91, 82250-99,

A 17 year old female presents in her family physician’s office complaining of nausea, vomiting, and weight gain. She has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for two weeks. An analysis of the urine reveals a positive pregnancy test and hCG levels of 12500 mIU/ml confirm she is in her sixth week of pregnancy.

  • 81005, 84703
  • 81025, 84703
  • 81025, 84702
  • 81005, 84702

An employee was randomly selected for a drug screen. According to the employer it is standard procedure to use a multiplex screening kit and test for barbiturates, cocaine, opiates, and methadone. Any drug with a positive result should be confirmed with a second, quantitative test. The employee showed positive for barbiturates and opiates. Secondary tests were run on the two and levels came back with 350 ng/ml for barbituates and 375 ng/ml for opiates.

  • 80101, 80101-91 x3, 80102, 80102-91
  • 80104, 80104-91 x3, 80102, 80102-91
  • 80100, 80100-91 x3, 82205, 83925
  • 80104,82205, 83925

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

A CBC does not include which of the following:

  • RBC
  • Hgb
  • hCG
  • WBC

A couple that was unsuccessful at conceiving a child chooses to have in vitro fertilization done. The eggs and semen have been harvested and nine eggs were implanted with a sperm. The zygotes went through mitosis and produced embryos. Three embryos were then implanted in the woman and the other six were kept for later use. What codes(s) would the lab technician charge for her services in preserving the remaining six embryos?

  • 89342
  • 89268
  • 89258
  • 89255 x6

A patient in her 30th week of pregnancy has a high oral glucose reading and her physician orders a glucose tolerance test. Upon arrival the laboratory technician draws the patient’s blood and the patient then ingests a glucose drink. Her blood is then drawn one, two, and three hours after the ingestion. As the patient was leaving the laboratory the technician informs her that the samples were incorrectly labeled and that the test needed to be repeated. The patient has her blood drawn again, ingested the glucose drink again, and has her blood re-drawn at one, two, and three hour intervals.

  • 82951, 82951-91
  • 82946, 82946-91
  • 82947, 82950, 82950-91 x2
  • 82951

Carbon dioxide, total calcium, and sodium and all in what three panels?

  • 80047, 80069, 80051
  • 80048, 80053, 80069
  • 80069, 80047, 80048
  • 82374, 82310, 84295

A qualitative hCG test will provide a positive or negative result while a quantitative hCH test will provide a specific amount of hCG in the specimen.

  • True
  • False


A 5year old is brought into the ER after being attacked by a stray dog. The stray was captured and tested positive for rabies. The patient has a 3cm laceration on his right cheek that requires simple closure and a 1cm and 4cm laceration on his upper left arm requiring layered repair. After discussing the benefits and risks with the patient’s parents they decide to have an IM rabies vaccination administered by the physician, due to the patient’s rabies exposure.

  • 873.41, 880.09, V01.5, 12032, 12013-51, 90460-51, 90375
  • 873.41, 880.09, V04.5, 12032, 12013-51, 90471-51, 90675-51
  • 873.41, 880.09, V01.5, 12032, 12013-51, 90460-51, 90675
  • 873.41, 880.03, V04.5, 12013, 12031-51, 12032-51, 96372-51, 90375

A 52 year old male is in the emergency department complaining of dizziness and states he passed out prior to arrival. The physician evaluates him, orders that a 12 lead EKG be performed, and has the nurse infuse 2 liters of NS over a 1 hour and 45 minute time period under his supervision. The EKG results were reviewed by the physician and were normal. A report was written and the patient was diagnosed with syncope due to dehydration and released. In addition to the EM service what should the physician code for?

  • 93000, 96360, 96361
  • 93010
  • 93000, 96360
  • 93010, 96360, 96361

A 45year old patient with end stage renal disease has in home dialysis services initiated on the 15th of the month. The physician provides dialysis every day. On the 19th the patient was admitted to the hospital and discharged on the 24th. The physician and patient began in-home dialysis again on the 25th and continued every day until the 31st.

  • 90970 x11
  • 90970
  • 90966
  • 90960

A patient with a dual lead implantable cardioverter-defibrillator has his physician initiate remote monitoring of the ICD and of cardiovascular monitor functionality (within the ICD), to help diagnosis the patient with what he suspects is left sided heart failure. Over the course of 90 days the physician remotely analyzes recorded data from the device, including left atrial pressure, ventricular pressure, and the patient’s blood pressure. He also remotely analyzes data from the defibrillator, including the heart rhythms and pace. After analysis and review the physician compiles reports on both. During this time period there was also one in-person interrogation of the ICM device and one in-person encounter for programming and adjusting the ICD device to ensure test functions and to optimize programming.

  • 93297 x3, 93295, 93283
  • 93297, 93295, 93283
  • 93297, 93295, 93290, 93283
  • 93297 x3, 93295, 93290, 93283

History: Past ocular surgery history is significant for neurovascular age-related dry macular degeneration. Patient has had laser four times to the macula on the right and two times to the left. Exam: Established 63 year old female patient. On examination, lids, surrounding tissues, and palpebral fissure are all unremarkable. Conjunctiva, sclera, cornea and iris were all assessed as well. Palpitation of the orbital rim revealed nothing. Visual acuity with correction measured 20/400 OU. Manifest refraction did not improve this. There was no afferent pupillary defect. Visual fields were grossly full to hand motions. Intraocular pressure measured 17 mm in each eye. Vertical prism bars were used to measure ocular deviation and a full sensorimotor examination to evaluate the function of the ocular motor system was performed. A slit-lamp examination was significant for clear corneas There was early nuclear sclerosis in both eyes. There was a sheet like 1-2+ posterior subcapsular cataract on the left. Dilated examination by way of cycloplegia showed choroidal neovascularization with subretinal heme and blood in both eyes. Magnified inspection was obtained with a Goldman 3-mirror lens and the retina, optic disc, and retinal vasculature were visualized. Macular degeneration was present in both the left and right retinas.

Assessment/Plan: Advanced neurovascular age-related macular degeneration OU, this is ultimately visually limiting. Cataracts are present in both eyes. I doubt cataract removal will help increase visual acuity; however, I did discuss with the patient, especially in the left, that cataract surgery will help us better visualize the macula for future laser treatment so that her current vision can be maintained. We discussed her current regiments and decided to continue with the high doses of the vitamins A, C and E, and the minerals zinc and copper to help slow her degeneration. After consideration the patient agreed to left cataract surgery which we scheduled for two weeks from today.

  • 92012, 92060, 92081
  • 92014, 92060
  • 92014
  • 92012

Some procedures or services are commonly carried out as an integral component of another total service or procedure and are identified by the inclusion term “separate procedure”. Codes with this inclusion term should not be reported in addition to the total procedure code or service to which it is considered an integral part, unless it is independently carried out or considered unrelated. If performed independently or as an un-related procedure it may be coded with modifier 59 appended to it.

  • False
  • True

A 73 year old group home resident with end stage renal disease has a nurse come in on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays to perform peritoneal dialysis. Each dialysis session lasts three hours. Once a week, (on Friday), the nurse also assists the patient with his meals, cleaning, and grocery shopping. What should the nurse charge for a month (30 days) of services if the 1st of the month landed on a Monday?

  • 99512 x 13, 99509 x4
  • 90966, 99509 x4
  • 99601 x13, 99602 x13, 99509 x4
  • 99601, 99602 x25, 99509 x4

The physician performs a non-imaging physiological recording of pressure on the left leg with Doppler analysis of blood flow in both directions. ABIs were taken at the back and front lower aspect of the tibial and tibial/dorsalis pedis arteries. In addition 2 levels of plethymography volume and oxygen tension were taken.

  • 93922-52
  • 93922
  • 93923
  • 93923-52

Due to a suspected gastric outlet obstruction a manometric study is performed. Using nuclear medicine the physician monitors the time it takes for food to move through the patient’s stomach, the time it take the patient’s stomach to empty into the small intestine, and how fully it empties.

  • 91010
  • 91020
  • 91022
  • 0240T

Which of the following drugs is not pending FDA approval

  • 90664
  • 90666
  • 90667
  • 90668

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

CPC Exam Questions 2013CPC Exam Questions 2013

CPC Exam 2013 Questions – Part Four

CPC Exam 2013 Questions


The patient was scheduled for an esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Upon arrival they were placed under conscious sedation and instructed to swallow a small flexible camera. The camera was then manipulated into the esophagus, and through the entire length of the esophagus. The esophagus appeared to be slightly inflamed, but there was no sign of erosion or flame hemorrhage. A small 2cm tissue sample was taken to look for gastroesophageal reflux disease. There was no stricture or Barrett mucosa. The bony and the antrum of the stomach were normal without any acute peptic lesions. Retroflexion of the tip of the  endoscope in the body of the stomach revealed an abnormal cardia. There were no acute lesions and no evidence of ulcer, tumor, or polyp. The pylorus was easily entered, and the first, second, and third portions of the duodenum were normal.

  • 43239
  • 43235
  • 43206
  • 43202

After informed consent was obtained, the patient was placed in the left lateral decubitus position and sedated. The Olympus video colonoscope was inserted through the anus and was advanced in retrograde fashion through the sigmoid colon, descending colon, and to the splenic flexure. There was a large amount of stool at the flexure which appeared to be impacted. The physician decided not to advance to the cecum due to the impaction and the scope was pulled back into the descending colon and then slowly withdrawn. The mucosa was examined in detail along the way and was entirely normal. Upon reaching the rectum, retroflex examination of the rectum was normal. The scope was then  straightened out, the air removed and the scope withdrawn. The patient tolerated the procedure well.

  • 45378
  • 45378-53
  • 45330
  • 45330-53

Operative Note

The 45 year old male patient was taken to the operative suite, placed on the table in the supine position, and given a spinal anesthetic. The right inguinal region was shaved, prepped, and draped in a routine sterile fashion. The patient received 1 gm of Ancef IV push. A transverse incision was made in the intraabdominal crease and carried through the skin and subcutaneous tissue. The external oblique fascia was exposed and incised down to, and through, the external inguinal ring. The spermatic cord and hernia sac were dissected bluntly off the undersurface of the external oblique fascia exposing the attenuated floor of the inguinal canal. The cord was surrounded with a Penrose drain. The sac was separated from the cord structures. The floor of the inguinal canal, which consisted of attenuated transversalis fascia, was imbricated upon itself with a running locked suture of 2-0 Prolene. Marlex patch 1 x 4 in dimension was trimmed to an appropriate shape with a defect to accommodate the cord. It was placed around the cord and sutured to itself with 2-0 Prolene. The patch was then sutured medially to the pubic tubercle, inferiorly to Cooper’s ligament and inguinal ligaments, and superiorly to conjoined tendon using 2-0 Prolene. The area was irrigated with saline solution, and 0.5% Marcaine with epinephrine was injected to provide prolonged postoperative pain relief. The cord was returned to its position. External oblique fascia was closed with a running 2-0 PDS, subcu with 2-0 Vicryl, and skin with running subdermal 4-0 Vicryl and Steri-Strips. Sponge and needle counts were correct. Sterile dressing was applied.

  • 49505
  • 49505, 54520
  • 49505, 49568
  • 49505,54520, 49568

The vestibule is part of the oral cavity outside the dentoalveolar structures and includes the mucosal and submucosal tissue of the lips and cheeks.

  • True
  • False

Which of the following organs is not part of the alimentary canal?

  • Gallbladder
  • Duodenum
  • Jejunum
  • Tongue

A 13 year old child has his tonsils and adenoids removed due acute tonsillitis and chronic tonsilitis and adenoiditis.

  • 42821-50, 463, 474.0
  • 42821, 463, 474.02
  • 42826, 42836, 463, 474.02
  • 42826, 42831, 475, 474.0

Operative Note

Preoperative Diagnosis: Protein-calorie malnutrition

Postoperative Diagnosis: Protein-calorie malnutrition.

Anesthesia: Conscious sedation per Anesthesia..

Complications: None

EGD: Dr. Brown

PEG Placement: Dr. Smith

History: The patient is a 73-year-old male who was admitted to the hospital with some mentation changes. He was unable to sustain enough caloric intake and had markedly decreased albumin stores. After discussion with the patient and his son they agreed to place a PEG tube for nutritional supplementation. Procedure: After informed consent was obtained the patient was brought to the endoscopy suite. He was placed in the supine position and was given IV sedation by the Anesthesia Department. An EGD was performed from above by Dr. Brown who has dictated his finding separately. The stomach was transilluminated and an optimal position for the PEG tube was identified using the single poke method. The skin was infiltrated with local and the needle and sheath were inserted through the abdomen into the stomach under direct visualization. The needle was removed and a guidewire was inserted through the sheath. The guidewire was grasped from above with a snare by Dr. Brown. It was removed completely and the Ponsky PEG tube was secured to the guidewire. The guidewire and PEG tube were then pulled through the mouth and esophagus and snug to the abdominal wall. There was no evidence of bleeding. Photos were taken. The Bolster was placed on the PEG site. A complete dictation for the EGD will be done separately by Dr. Brown. The patient tolerated the procedure well and was transferred to recovery room in stable condition. He will be started on tube feedings in 6 hours with aspiration and dietary precautions to determine his nutritional goal. What code(s) should Dr. Smith charge?

  • 43653
  • 43752
  • 49440
  • 43246-62

An 18 year old female was found with a suicide note and an empty bottle of Tylenol. She was rushed into the emergency department where she had a large-bore gastric lavage tube inserted into her stomach and the contents were evacuated.

  • 43756
  • 43752
  • 43753
  • 43754

All endoscopies performed on the digestive system (such as an esophagoscopy, a colonoscopy, a sigmoidoscopy, etc.) do not allow moderate sedation to be coded additionally because it is bundled into the code?

  • True
  • False

Operative Note

History of Present Illness: Ms. Moore is status post lap band placement, the band was placed just over a year ago and she is here for a lap band adjustment. She has a history of problems previously with her adjustments. She has been under a lot of stress recently due to a car accident she was in a couple of weeks ago. Since the accident she has been experiencing problems of “not feel full”. She states that she is not really hungry but she does not feel full either. She also states that when she is hungry at night she is having difficulty waiting until the morning to eat. She also mentioned that she had a candy bar and that seemed to make her feel better.

Physical Examination: On exam, her temperature is 98, pulse 76, weight 197.7 pounds, blood pressure 102/72, BMI is 38.5, she has lost 3.8 pounds since her last visit. She was alert and oriented in no apparent distress.

Procedure: I was able to access her port. She does have an AP standard low profile. I aspirated 6 mL, I did add 1 mL, so she has got approximately 7 mL in her restrictive device, she did tolerate water post procedure.

Assessment: The patient’s status post lap band adjustments; doing well, has a total of 7 mL within her lap band, tolerated water pos procedure. She will come back in two weeks for another adjustment as needed.

  • 43771
  • 43886
  • 43842
  • 43848

Urinary, Male Genital, and Female Genital Systems, and Maternity Care and Delivery


A patient was brought to the OR and sedated. She was then placed in the supine position on a water filled cushion. The C-Arm image intensifier was positioned in the correct anatomical location above the left renal and a total of 2500 high energy shock waves were applied from the outside of the body. Energy levels were slowly started and O2 increased up to 7. Gradually the 2.5cm stone was broken into smaller pieces as the number of shocks went up. The shocks were started at 60 per minute and slowly increased up to 90 per minute. The patient’s heart rate and blood pressure were stable throughout the entire procedure. She was transported to recovery in good condition.

  • 50590
  • 50060
  • 50130, 76770
  • 50081, 74425

A patient recently underwent a total hysterectomy due to ovarian cancer, which has  metastasized. She is now having cylinder rods placed for clinical brachytherapy treatment. Treatment will consist of high dose rate (HDR) brachytherapy once correct placement of the rods have been confirmed.

  • 57156-58
  • 57155-58
  • 57156
  • 57155

The patient was brought to the suite, where after oral sedation; the scrotum was prepped and draped. 1% lidocaine was used for local anesthesia. The vas was identified, skin was incised, and no scalpel instruments were used to dissect out the vas. A segment about 3 cm in length was dissected out. It was clipped proximally and distally, and then the ends were cauterized after excising the segment. Minimal bleeding was encountered and the scrotal skin was closed with 3-0  chromic. The identical procedure was performed on the contralateral side. The patient tolerated the procedure well. He was discharged from the surgical center in good condition with Tylenol with Codeine for pain.

  • 55250
  • 55400-50
  • 55400
  • 55450

Operative Note

Epidural anesthesia was administered in the holding area, after which the patient was transferred into the operating room. General endotracheal anesthesia was administered,

after which the patient was positioned in the flank standard position. A left flank incision

was made over the area of the twelfth rib. The subcutaneous space was opened by using

the Bovie. The ribs were palpated clearly and the fascia overlying the intercostal space

between the eleventh and twelfth rib was opened by using the Bovie. The fascial layer

covering of the intercostal space was opened completely until the retroperitoneum was

entered. Once the retroperitoneum had been entered, the incision was extended until the

peritoneal envelope could be identified. The peritoneum was swept medially. The

Finochietto retractor was then placed for exposure. The kidney was readily identified and

was mobilized from outside Gerota’s fascia. The ureter was dissected out easily and was

separated with a vessel loop. The superior aspect of the kidney was mobilized from the

superior attachment. The pedicle of the left kidney was completely dissected revealing the vein and the artery. The artery was a single artery and was dissected easily by using a right-angle clamp. A vessel loop was placed around the renal artery. The tumor could be easily palpated in the lateral lower pole to mid pole of the left kidney. The Gerota’s fascia overlying that portion of the kidney was opened in the area circumferential to the tumor. Once the renal capsule had been identified, the capsule was scored using a Bovie about 0.5 cm lateral to the border of the tumor. Bulldog clamp was then placed on the renal artery. The tumor was then bluntly dissected off of the kidney with a thin rim of a normal renal cortex. This was performed by using the blunted end of the scalpel. The tumor was removed easily. The argon beam coagulation device was then utilized to coagulate the base of the resection. The visible larger bleeding vessels were oversewn by using 4-0 Vicryl suture. The edges of the kidney were then reapproximated by using 2-0 Vicryl suture with pledgets at the ends of the sutures to prevent the sutures from pulling through. Two horizontal mattress sutures were placed and were tied down. The Gerota’s fascia was then also closed by using 2-0 Vicryl suture. The area of the kidney at the base was covered with Surgicel prior to tying the sutures. The bulldog clamp was removed and perfect hemostasis was evident. There was no evidence of violation into the calyceal system. A 19-French Blake drain was placed in the inferior aspect of the kidney exitingthe  left flank inferior to the incision. The drain was anchored by using silk sutures. The flank fascial layers were closed in three separate layers in the more medial aspect. The lateral posterior aspect was closed in two separate layers using Vicryl sutures. The skin was finally re-approximated by using metallic clips. The patient tolerated the procedure well.

  • 50545
  • 50240
  • 50220
  • 50290


Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

A 26 year old patient who is Gravida 2 Para 1 presents to the ER in her 36th week of pregnancy with twin gestations who are monochorionic and monoamniotic. She is in active labor, 6 cm dilated, and her water is intact. Her OBGYN, who provided 12 antepartum visits, admitted her to labor & delivery. Although the patient had a previous cesarean during her first pregnancy the physician allowed her to attempt a vaginal birth. After pushing for three hours the patient was exhausted and taken to the OR for a cesarean delivery with a transverse incision. Two healthy newborns were born 15 minutes later. During the hospital stay and afterward the same physician provided the postpartum care to the mother.

  • 59426, 59622,59620, 651.01, 644.21, V31.1, V91.01
  • 59618, 59620-51, 651.01, 644.21,669.71, V27.2, V91.01
  • 59618, 59618-51, 651.01, V27.2, V91.01
  • 59618-22, 669.71, 644.21, V31.1, V91.01

When reporting delivery only services the discharge should be reported by using an E/M.

  • True
  • False

A 74 year old male with a weak urinary stream had his PSA tested. Results read 12.5 and he was scheduled for a biopsy to determine whether he had a malignancy or BPH. He arrived for surgery and was placed in the left lateral decubitus position and he was sedated. The surgeon used ultrasonic guidance to percutaneously retrieve 3 biopsies, using the transperineal approach. The biopsies were examined and the patient was diagnosed with secondary prostate cancer with the primary site unknown. He was directed to schedule a PET scan and discharged in good condition.

  • 55875, 76965
  • 55706, 76942
  • 55700, 76942
  • 55705, 76942

procedure: Hydrocelectomy

A scrotal incision was made and further extended with electrocautery. Once the hydrocele sac was reached we then opened and delivered the testis which drained clear fluid. There was moderate amount of scarring on the testis itself from the tunica vaginalis. The hydrocele sac was completely removed. A drain was then placed in the base of the scrotum and then the testis was placed back into the scrotum in the proper orientation. The same procedure was performed on the left. The skin was then sutured with a running interlocking suture of 3-0 Vicryl and the drains were sutured to place with 3-0 Vicryl. Bacitracin dressing, ABD dressing, and jock strap were placed. The patient was in stable condition upon transfer to recovery.

  • 55041
  • 54861
  • 55000-50
  • 55060

A urologist performs a cystometrogram with intra-abdominal voiding pressure studies in a hospital using calibrated electronic equipment that is provided for his use. He interprets the study and diagnosis the patient with neurogenic bladder.

  • 51726, 51797
  • 51729-26, 51797-26
  • 51726-26, 51797-26
  • 51729, 51797

Transvaginal sonographically controlled retrieval of a 26 year old female’s eggs by piercing the ovarian follicle with a very fine needle.

  • 58976, 76948
  • 58672
  • 58970, 76948
  • 58940, 76948


Endocrine, Nervous, Ocular, and Auditory Systems

 The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are the English terms for the three auditory ossicles, whose Latin names are:

  • Stapes, Utricle, and cochlea
  • Malleus, incus, and stapes
  • Utricle, incus, and vestibular nerve
  • Malleus, stapes, Utricle

Operative Note

Pre-operative Diagnosis: Increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema due to severe brain injury.

Post operative Diagnosis: Increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema due to severe brain injury.

Procedure: Scalp was clipped. Patient was prepped with ChloraPrep and Betadine. Incisions are infiltrated with 1% Xylocaine with epinephrine 1:200000. Patient did receive antibiotics post procedure and was draped in a sterile manner. The incision made just to the right of the right mid-pupillary line 10 cm behind the nasion. A self-retaining retractor was placed. A hole was then drilled with the cranial twist drill and the dura was punctured. A brain needle was used to localize the ventricle and it took 3 passes to localize the ventricle. The pressure was initially high. The CSF was clear and colorless . The CSF drainage rapidly tapered off because of the brain swelling. With two tries, the ventricular catheter was then able to be placed into the ventricle and then brought out through a separate puncture site; the depth of catheter was 7 cm from the outer table of the skull. There was intermittent drainage of CSF after that. The catheter was secured to the scalp with #2-0 silk sutures and the incision was closed with Ethilon suture. The patient tolerated the procedure well. No complications. Sponge and needle counts were correct. Blood loss is minimal.

  • 61107, 62160
  • 61210
  • 61107
  • 61210, 62160

Using the posterior approach the surgeon made a midline incision above the underlying vertebrae and dissected down to the paravertabral muscles and retracted then. The ligamentum flavum, lamina, and fragments of a ruptured C3-C4 intervertebral disc were all removed. The surgeon also removed a portion of the facet to relieve the compressed nerve of the C4 vertebrae. He then placed a free-fat graft over the exposed nerve and the paravertabral muscles were repositioned. The patient was then closed using layered sutures and taken to recovery.

  • 63040
  • 63075
  • 63081
  • 63170

A procedure in which corneal tissue from a donor is frozen, reshaped, and implanted into the anterior corneal stroma of the recipient to modify refractive error.

  • 65710
  • 65760
  • 65765
  • 65770

Which of the following organs is not part of the endocrine system

  • Thyroid
  • Pancreas
  • Lymph nodes
  • Adrenal Glands

Using an operating microscope the ophthalmologist places stay sutures into the rectus muscle. A cold probe is then placed over the sclera and is depressed sealing the choroid to the retina at the original tear site. He then performs a sclerotomy and places mattress sutures across the incision. Subretinal fluid is then drained. Next a silicone sponge, followed by a silicone band, are placed around the eye and sutured into place to help support the healing scar. Rectus sutures are removed.

  • 67101
  • 67101, 69990
  • 67107
  • 67107, 69990

Following a motor vehicle collision a 28 year old male was given a CT scan of the brain which indicated an infratentorial hematoma in the cerebellum. The patient was taken to the OR where the neurosurgeon, using the CT coordinates, incised the scalp and drilled a burr hole into the cranium above the hematoma. Under direct visualization he then evacuated the hematoma using suction and irrigated with NS. Hemorrhaging was controlled and the dura was closed. The skull piece was then placed back into the drill hole and screwed into place. The scalp was closed and the patient was sent to recovery.

  • 61154
  • 61253, 61315
  • 61315
  • 61154, 61315

An incision was made right in the mid palm area between the thenar and hypothenar eminence. Meticulous hemostasis of any bleeders was done. The fat was identified. The palmar aponeurosis was identified and cut and this was traced down to the wrist. There was severe compression of the median nerve. Additional removal of the aponeurosis was performed to allow for further decompression. After this was all completed, the area was irrigated with saline and bacitracin solution and closed as a single layer using Prolene 4-0 as interrupted vertical mattress stitches. Dressing was applied. The patient was brought to the recovery.

  • 64702
  • 64704
  • 64719
  • 64721


A postaurical incision is made on the right ear. With the use of an operating microscope the surgeon visualizes and reflects the skin flap and posterior eardrum forward. A small leak from the middle ear into the round window is noted. The surgeon then roughens up the surface of the window and packs it with fat. Upon retraction the eardrum and skin flap are replaced and the canal is packed. The surgeon then sutures the postaurical incision. He then repeats the procedure on the left ear.

  • 69666-50, 69990
  • 69667-50, 69990
  • 69666, 69990
  • 69667-50

Code 60512 should not be used:

  • In conjunction with code 60260
  • As a primary code
  • As an additional code following a total thyroidectomy
  • After code 60500

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

CPC Exam 2013 Questions – Part Three

An 81 year old female patient with a history of well controlled type two diabetes and a mild history of asthma presents in the operating room for an open reduction with internal fixation for a displaced fracture of the right distal radius. The patient was laid in the supine position on the operating table. The right arm was prepped and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Prior to the surgery the patient was given 1g of cefazolin intravenously. A tourniquet was place on the upper arm and inflated to 250 mmHg. An incision was made along the dorsal aspect of the forearm and subcutaneous tissue was dissected to reveal the fractured radius. A curette was used to remove the splintered ends of the radius on each side of the fracture and a K-wire was then introduced along the radius to stabilize it. A guide pin was then placed down the central axis of the radius. A 20mm hole was then drilled and a screw was introduced. The K-wire was then removed and the wound was thoroughly irrigated with normal saline. The fascia layer was closed with absorbable sutures and the epidermis was closed with Monocryl. The wound was dressed with Vaseline gauze, 4x4s, and sterile Sof-Rol. A long arm Velcro splint was then placed over this and placed in a sling. The tourniquet was deflated after a total time of 60 minutes. The patient was awakened, placed in his hospital bed, and taken to the recovery room in fair condition. Estimated blood loss was 15cc. Sponge and needle counts were correct.

  • 01830-P2, 99100, 813.42, 250.00, 493.90
  • 10830-P3, 99100, 813.52. 250.00, 493.90
  • 01810-P2, 99100, 813.42, V12.2, V12.69
  • 01820-P3, 99100, 813.52, V12.2, V12.69


John was in a fight at the local bar and presents to the ER with multiple lacerations. The physician evaluates John and determines that he has a 2.5 cm gash to his left forearm and a 4cm gash on his right shoulder, both which require layered closure. He also has a simple 3cm laceration on his forehead that requires simple closure. What are the correct codes for the laceration repairs?

  • 12032-RT, 12031-LT, 12013-59, 881.10, 880.10, 873.42
  • 12032, 12013-59, 881.00, 880.00, 873.42
  • 13121, 12052-59, 884.1, 873.42
  • 12032-RT-LT, 12013-59, 881.00, 880.00, 873.42

A patient presents to her dermatologists office with three suspicious looking lesions. The dermatologist evaluates them and determines that the 1.3cm lesion of the scalp is benign and the 1.5cm lesion of the neck is premalignant. The 2.5 cm on the dorsal surface of the patient’s hand is also evaluated and is determined to be malignant. The dermatologist chooses to ablate all three lesions using electrosurgery.

  • 17273, 17003, 17110
  • 17273, 17000, 17003
  • 17273, 17000, 17110
  • 17273, 17003

An 18 year old female presents with a cyst of her left breast and her physician performs a puncture aspiration.

  • 10160
  • 10060
  • 10021
  • 19000


Preoperative Diagnosis: Basal Cell Carcinoma

Postoperative Diagnosis: Basal Cell Carcinoma

Location: Mid Parietal Scalp


Prior to each surgical stage, the surgical site was tested for anesthesia and re-anesthetized as needed, after which it was prepped and draped in a sterile fashion.  The clinically-apparent tumor was carefully defined and de-bulked prior to the first stage, determining the extent of the surgical excision. With each stage, a thin layer of tumor-laden tissue was excised with a narrow margin of normal appearing skin, using the Mohs fresh tissue technique. A map was prepared to correspond to the area of skin from which it was excised. The tissue was prepared for the cryostat and sectioned. Each section was coded, cut and stained for microscopic examination. The entire base and margins of the excised piece of tissue were examined by the surgeon. Areas noted to be positive on the previous stage (if applicable) were removed with the Mohs technique and processed for analysis. No tumor was identified after the final stage of microscopically controlled surgery. The patient tolerated the procedure well without any complication. After discussion with the patient regarding the various options, the best closure option for each defect was selected for optimal functional and cosmetic results.

Preoperative Size: 1.5 x 2.9 cm

Postoperative Size: 2.7 x 2.9 cm

Closure: Simple Linear Closure, 3.5cm, scalp

Total # of Mohs Stages: 2

tage Sections Positive

  • 17311, 17315, 17312, 12002
  • 17311, 17312, 12002
  • 17311, 17315, 17312
  • 17311, 17312



A patient with a non-healing burn wound on her right cheek, and is admitted to the OR for surgery. The physician had the patient prepped with a Betadine scrub and draped in the normal sterile fashion. The cheek was anesthetized with 1% Lydocain with 1:800,000 epinephrine (6 cc), and SeptiCare was applied. A skin graft of the epidermis and a small portion of the dermis was taken with a Goulian Weck blade with a six-thousands-of-an–inch-thick shim on the blade. The 25 sq cm graft was flipped and sewn to the adjacent defect with running 5-0 Vicryl. The wound was then dressed with Xeroform and the patient was taken to recovery.

  • 14041
  • 15115
  • 15120
  • 15758

A child is brought into the emergency department after having her fingers on her right hand closed in a car door. The physician evaluates the patient and diagnosis her with a 3cm laceration to her second finger and a subungual hematoma to her third finger. The physician then  proceeds to cleanse the fingers with an iodine scrub and injects both digits with 2 mL of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine. The wound on the second finger was then irrigated with 500 cc of NS and explored for foreign bodies or structural damage. No foreign bodies were found, tendons and vessels were intact. The wound was then re-approximated. Three 5-0 absorbable mattress sutures were used to close the subcutaneous tissue and six 6-0 nylon interrupted sutures were used to close the epidermis. The finger was then wrapped in sterile gauze and placed in an aluminum finger splint. The physician then check that the digital block performed on the third finger was still effective. After ensuring the patient’s finger was still numb he then proceeded to take an electronic cautery unit and created a small hole in the nail. Pressing slightly on the nail he evacuated the hematoma. The hole was then irrigated with 500cc of NS and the finger was wrapped in sterile gauze. The patient tolerated both procedures well without complaint.

  • 20103, 12042-51, F6, 11740-51, F7
  • 20103, 12042-F6, 11740-F7
  • 64400 (x2), 20103-51, 12042-51, 11740-51,59
  • 12042-F6, 11740-F7

The size of an excision of a benign lesion is determined by:

  • The depth of the lesion plus the full diameter of the lesion.
  • The diameter of the lesion only, excluding any margins excised with it.
  • Adding together the lesion diameter and the narrowest margins necessary to adequately excise the lesion.
  • Adding together the lesion diameter and the widest margins necessary to adequately excise the lesion.

A simple, single layered laceration requires extensive cleaning due to being heavily contaminated. The code selected would come from code range 12031-12057.

  • False
  • True

A skin graft where the donor skin comes from another human (often a cadaver) is known as a/an:

  • Autograft
  • Acellulargraft
  • Allograft
  • Xenograft


A patient is being treated for third degree burns to his left leg and left arm which cover a total of 18 sq cm. The burns are scrubbed clean, anesthetized, and three incisions are made with a #11 scalpel, through the tough leathery tissue that is dead, in order to expose the fatty tissue below and avoid compartment syndrome. The burns are then re-dressed with sterile gauze.

  • 97597
  • 97602
  • 16035, 16036 x2
  • 16030, 16035, 16036 x2


Medial and lateral meniscus repair performed arthroscopically.

  • 27447
  • 29868
  • 29882
  • 29883


A patient comes into the emergency department complaining of sever wrist pain after falling onto her out stretched hands. The physician evaluates the patient taking a detailed history, a detailed exam, and medical decision making of moderate complexity. Upon examination the physician notes that there is a small portion of bone protruding through the skin. After ordering x-rays of the forearm and wrist the patient is diagnosed with an open distal radius fracture of the right arm.The physician provides an IV drip of morphine to the patient for pain and reduces the fracture. 5-0 absorbable sutures were use to close the subcutaneous layer above the fracture and the surface was closed with 6-0 nylon interrupted sutures. Wound length was measured at 2.5 cm. It was then dressed with sterile gauze and the wrist was stabilized with a Spica fiberglass cast. The physician provided the patient with a prescription for Percocet for pain and instructions for her to follow up with her orthopedist in 7 days.

  • 99284-25, 25574-RT, 813.52
  • 99284-57-25, 25605-54-RT, 12031 , 813.52
  • 99284-57, 25574-54, 813.52
  • 99284-25, 25605-RT, 12031, 813.52


A Scapulopexy is found under what heading

  • Incision
  • Excision
  • Introduction
  • Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction


A patient with muscle spasms in her back was seen in her physician’s office for treatment. The area over the myofascial spasm was prepped with alcohol utilizing sterile technique. After isolating it between two palpating fingertips a 25-gauge 5″ needle was placed in the center of the myofascial spasms and a negative aspiration was performed. Then 4 cc of Marcaine 0.5% was injected into three points in the muscle. The patient tolerated the procedure well without any apparent difficulties or complications. The patient reported feeling full relief by the time the block had set.

  • 20553
  • 64520
  • 20552
  • 64400


PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: myelopathy secondary to very large disc herniations at C4- C5 and C5-C6.

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: myelopathy secondary to very large disc herniations at C4-C5 and C5-C6.


  1. Anterior discectomy, C5-C6.
  2. Arthrodesis, C5-C6.
  3. Partial corpectomy, C5.
  4. Machine bone allograft, C5-C6.
  5. Placement of anterior plate with a Zephyr C6.





INDICATIONS: This is a patient who presents with progressive weakness in the left upper extremity as well as imbalance. He has a very large disc herniation that came behind the body at C5 as well and as well as a large disc herniation at C5-C6. Risks and benefits of the surgery including bleeding, infection, neurologic deficit, nonunion, progressive spondylosis, and lack of improvement were all discussed. He understood and wished to proceed.

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought to the operating room and placed in the supine position. Preoperative antibiotics were given. The patient was placed in the supine position with all pressure points noted and well padded. The patient was prepped and draped in  standard fashion. An incision was made approximately above the level of the cricoid. Blunt dissection was used to expose the anterior portion of the spine with carotid moved laterally and trachea and esophagus moved medially. I then placed needle into the disc spaces and was found to be at C5-C6. Distracting pins were placed in the body of C6. The disc was then completely removed at C5-C6. There was very significant compression of the cord. This was carefully removed to avoid any type of pressure on the cord. This was very severe and multiple free fragments noted. This was taken down to the level of ligamentum. Both foramen were then also opened. Part of the body of C5 was taken down to assure that all fragments were removed and that there was no additional constriction. The nerve root was then widely decompressed. Machine bone allograft was placed into C5-C6 and then a Zephyr plate was placed in the body C6 with a metal pin placed into the body at C5. Excellent purchase was obtained. Fluoroscopy showed good placement and meticulous hemostasis was obtained. Fascia was closed with 3-0 Vicryl, subcuticular 3-0 Dermabond for skin. The patient tolerated the procedure well and went to recovery in good condition.

  • 22554, 63081, 63082, 20931, 22845
  • 22551, 63081, 20931, 22840
  • 22551, 63081, 63082, 20931, 22845
  • 22554, 63081, 20931, 22840


Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

A general surgeon and a neurosurgeon are performing an osteotomy on the L4 vertebral segment. The general surgeon establishes the opening using an anterior approach. While the neurosurgeon performs the osteotomy the general surgeon performs a discectomy. After completion the general surgeon closes the patient up.

  • General: 22224-59 Neurosurgeon: 22224-54
  • General: 22224-62 Neurosurgeon: 22224-62
  • General: 22224-66 Neurosurgeon: 22224-66
  • General: 22224 Neurosurgeon: 22224-80

A patient comes into his physician’s office with a prior diagnosis of a Colles type distal radius

fracture. He complains that the cast he currently has on is too tight and is causing numbness in his fingers. The physician removes the cast and ensures the patient’s circulation is intact. He then re- applies a short arm fiberglass cast and checks the patient’s neurovascular status several times during the procedure. The patient is given instructions to follow-up with his orthopedist within seven days.

  • 25600-77
  • 25600-52
  • 29705, 29075
  • 29075


A patient is brought into the OR for a diagnostic arthroscopy of the shoulder. The patient has been complaining of pain since his surgery 4 months ago. The surgeon explores the shoulder and discovers a metal clamp which had been left in from the prior surgery. The surgeon removed the clamp and closed the patient up.

  • 29819
  • 29819-78
  • 29805, 29819
  • 29805, 23331

This 59 year-old female was brought to the operating room and placed on the surgical table in a supine position. Following anesthesia, the surgical site was prepped and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Attention was then directed to the right foot where, utilizing a # 15 blade, a 6 cm. linear incision was made over the 1st metatarsal head, taking care to identify and retract all vital structures. The incision was medial to and parallel to the extensor hallucis longus tendon. The incision was deepened through subcutaneous underscored, retracted medially and laterally – thus exposing the capsular structures below, which were incised in a linear longitudinal manner, approximately the length of the skin incision. The capsular structures were sharply underscored off the underlying osseous attachments, retracted medially and laterally. Utilizing an osteotome and mallet the medial eminence of the metatarsal bone was removed and the head was remodeled with the Liston bone forceps and the bell rasp. The surgical site was then flushed with saline. The base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe was osteotomized approximately 1 cm distal to the base and excised to toto from the surgical site. There was no hemi implant used and Kirschner wire was used to hold the joint in place. Superficial closure was accomplished using Vicryl 5-0 in a running subcuticular fashion. Site was dressed with a light compressive dressing. The tourniquet was released. Excellent capillary refill to all the digits was observed without excessive bleeding noted.

  • 28290
  • 28292
  • 28294
  • 28298

Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Hemic and Lymphatic, Mediastinum, and Diaphragm 

Operative Note

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Angina and coronary artery disease.

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Angina and coronary artery disease.

PROCEDURE DETAILS: The patient was brought to the operating room and placed in the supine position upon the table. After adequate general anesthesia, the patient was prepped with Betadine soap and solution in the usual sterile manner. Elbows were protected to avoid ulnar neuropathy and phrenic nerve protectors were used to protect the phrenic nerve. All were removed at the end of the case. A midline sternal skin incision was made and carried down through the sternum which was divided with the saw. Pericardial and thymus fat pad was divided. The left internal mammary artery was harvested and spatulated for anastomosis. Heparin was given.  The Femoropopliteal vein was resected from the thigh, side branches secured using 4-0 silk and Hemoclips. The thigh was closed multilayer Vicryl and Dexon technique. A Pulsavac wash was done, drain was placed The left internal mammary artery is sewn to the left anterior descending using 7-0 running Prolene technique with the Medtronic off-pump retractors. After this was done, the patient was fully heparinized, cannulated with a 6.5 atrial cannula and a 2-stage venous catheter and begun on cardiopulmonary bypass and maintained normothermia. Medtronic retractors used to expose the

circumflex. Prior to going on pump, we stapled the vein graft in place to the aorta. Then, on pump, we did the distal anastomosis with a 7-0 running Prolene technique. The right side graft was brought to the posterior descending artery using running 7-0 Prolene technique. Deairing procedure was carried out. The bulldog clamps were removed. The patient maintained good normal sinus rhythm with good mean perfusion. The patient was weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass. The arterial and venous lines were removed and doubly secured. Protamine was delivered. Meticulous hemostasis was present. Platelets were given for coagulopathy. Chest tube was placed and meticulous hemostasis was present. The anatomy and the flow in the grafts was excellent. Closure was begun. The sternum was closed with wire, followed by linea alba and pectus fascia closure with running 6-0 Vicryl sutures in double-layer technique. The skin was closed with subcuticular 4-0 Dexon suture technique. The patient tolerated the procedure well and was transferred to the intensive care unit in stable condition.

  • 35572, 33533, 33517, 32551, 36825, 33926
  • 33533, 33517, 35572
  • 33510, 33533, 35572, 32551, 36821
  • 33510, 33533, 33572

A 50-year-old gentleman with severe respiratory failure is mechanically ventilated and is currently requiring multiple intravenous drips. With the patient in his Intensive Care Unit bed, mechanically ventilated in the Trendelenburg position, the right neck was prepped and draped with Betadine in a sterile fashion. A single needle stick aspiration of the right subclavian vein was accomplished without difficulty and the guide wire was advanced and a dilator was advanced over the wire. The triple lumen catheter was cannulated over the wire and the wire was then removed. No PVCs were encountered during the procedure. All three ports to the catheter were aspirated and flushed blood easily and they were all flushed with normal saline. The catheter was anchored to the chest wall with butterfly phalange using 3-0 silk suture. Betadine ointment and a sterile Op-Site dressing were applied. Stat upright chest x-ray was obtained at the completion of the procedure to ensure proper placement of the tip in the subclavian vein.

  • 36557
  • 36555
  • 36558
  • 36556


A patient with chronic emphysema has surgery to remove both lobes of the left lung.

  • 32310
  • 32663×2
  • 32482
  • 32440

A thoracic surgeon makes an incision under the sternal notch at the base of the throat, introduces the scope into the mediastinal space and takes two biopsies of the tissue. He then retracts the scope and closes the small incision.

  • 39400
  • 32606
  • 39000
  • 32405

A patient has endoscopic surgery done to remove his anterior and posterior ethmoid sinuses. The surgeon dilated the maxillary sinus with a balloon using a transnasal approach, explored the frontal sinuses, remove two polyps from the maxillary sinus, and then performed the tissue removal.

  • 31255, 31295, 31237
  • 31201, 31295, 31237
  • 31255, 31267
  • 31255, 31295, 31267


Operative Note

Approach: Left cephalic vein.

Leads Implanted: Medtronic model 5076-45 in the right atrium, serial number PJN983322V.

Medtronic 5076-52 in the right ventricle, serial number PJN961008V.

Device Implanted: Pacemaker, Dual Chamber, Medtronic EnRhythm, model P1501VR, serial number PNP422256H.

Lead Performance: Atrial threshold less than 1.3 volts at 0.5 milliseconds. P wave 3.3 millivolts. Impedance 572 ohms. Right ventricle threshold 0.9 volts at 0.5 milliseconds. R wave 10.3. Impedance 855.

Procedure: The patient was brought to the electrophysiology laboratory in a fasting state and intravenous sedation was provided as needed with Versed and fentanyl. The left neck and chest were prepped and draped in the usual manner and the skin and subcutaneous tissues below the left clavicle were infiltrated with 1% lidocaine for local anesthesia. A 2-1/2-inch incision was made below the left clavicle and electrocautery was used for hemostasis. Dissection was carried out to the level of the pectoralis fascia and extended caudally to create a pocket for the pulse generator. The deltopectoral groove was explored and a medium-sized cephalic vein was identified. The distal end of the vein was ligated and a venotomy was performed. Two guide wires were advanced to the superior vena cava and peel-away introducer sheaths were used to insert the two pacing leads. The venous pressures were elevated and there was a fair amount of back-bleeding from the vein, so a 3-0 Monocryl figure-of-eight stitch was placed around the tissue surrounding the vein for hemostasis. The right ventricular lead was placed in the high RV septum and the right atrial lead was placed in the right atrial appendage. The leads were tested with a pacing systems analyzer and the results are noted above. The leads were then anchored in place with #0-silk around their suture sleeve and connected to the pulse generator. The pacemaker was noted to function appropriately. The pocket was then irrigated with antibiotic solution and the pacemaker system was placed in the pocket. The incision was closed with two layers of 3-0 Monocryl and a subcuticular closure of 4-0 Monocryl. The incision was dressed with Steri-Strips and a sterile bandage and the patient was returned to her room in good condition.

  • 33240, 33225, 33202
  • 33208, 33225, 33202
  • 33213, 33217
  • 33208



If a surgeon is performing a surgical sinus endoscopy to control a nasal hemorrhage and chooses to perform a necessary sinusotomy while he’s there, he can bill for each individual service.

  • True
  • False

A cardiologist manipulates a catheter through the patient’s atrial system, starting in the femoral artery and manipulating to the third order, using intravascular ultrasound.

  • 36217, 37250
  • 36217, 75945
  • 36247, 37250
  • 36247, 75945

An indirect laryngoscopy, as described in code 31505, utilizes a mirror in which the physician can view the reflection of the larynx. A direct laryngoscopy, as described by code 31515, utilizes a scope in which the physician peers through and views the larynx.

  • True
  • False


A patient was taken into the operating room where after induction of appropriate anesthesia, her left chest, neck, axilla, and arm were prepped with Betadine solution and draped in a sterile fashion. An incision was made at the hairline and carried down by sharp dissection through the clavipectoral fascia. The lymph node was palpitated in the armpit and grasped with a figure-of- eight 2-0 silk suture and by sharp dissection, was carried to hemoclip all attached structures. The lymph node was excised in its entirety. The wound was irrigated. The lymph node was sent to pathology. The wound was then closed. Hemostasis was assured and the patient was taken to recovery room in stable condition.

  • 38308
  • 38500
  • 38510
  • 38525

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

CPC Exam 2013 Questions – Part Two

CPC Exam 2013 Questions


What is the correct ICD-9-CM code(s) for malignant hypertension with stage III kidney disease?

  • 403.00, 585.3
  • 401.0
  • 403.00
  • 401.0, 585.3

Lucy was standing on a chair in her kitchen trying to change a light bulb when she slipped and fell. She struck the glass top stove, which shattered. She presents to the ER with a simple laceration to her forearm that has embedded glass particles.

  • 881.10, E888.1, E920.8
  • 881.00, E888.1, E849.0
  • 881.10, E888.0, E920.8
  • 881.00, E888.0, E849.0

Jim was at a bonfire when he tripped and fell into the flames. Jim sustained multiple burns. He came to the emergency room via an ambulance and was treated for second and third degree burns on his face, second degree burn on his shoulders and forearms, and third degree burns on the fronts of his thighs.

  • 941.30, 943.29, 945.36, 948.64, E897
  • 941.09, 943.09, 945.09, 948.64, E897
  • 941.30, 945.36, 943.29, 948.42, E897
  • 941.20, 941.30, 943.25, 943.21, 945.36, 948.42, E897

A 35 year old woman who is pregnant with her first child is admitted to the hospital. She experiences a prolonged labor during the first stage and eventually births a healthy baby boy.

  • 662.01, 659.5, V27.0
  • 650, 662.01, 659.6, V27.0
  • 650, V27.0
  • 662.00, 659.6, V27.0

Henry was playing baseball and slid for home base where he collided with another player. He presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in the distal portion of his right middle finger. It is swollen and deformed. The physician orders an x-ray and diagnoses Henry with a tuft fracture. He splints the finger, provides narcotics for pain, and instructs Henry to follow-up with his orthopedist in two weeks.

  • 815.04, E917.0
  • 814.09, E007.3
  • 815.03, E917.0
  • 816.02, E007.3

A 60 year old male is admitted for detoxification and rehabilitation. He has continuously abused amphetamines to the point that he cannot voluntarily stop on his own and has become dependent upon them. He also has a long documented history of alcohol abuse and alcoholism. He experiences high levels of anxiety due to PTSD, which causes him to use and abuse substances.

  • 305.71, 304.41, 305.00, 303.91, 300.00, 309.81
  • 304.71, 305.00, 300.00, 309.81
  • 304.41, 303.91, 300.00, 309.81
  • 305.71, 304.41, 305.00, 303.91, 300.02, 309.81

A patient with uncontrolled type II diabetes is experiencing blurred vision and an increase in floaters appearing in her vision. She is diagnosed with diabetic retinopathy.

  • 362.10, 250.02
  • 250.52, 362.01
  • 362.01, 250.52
  • 250.00, 362.0

Signs and symptoms that are associated routinely with a disease process should not be assigned as additional codes, unless otherwise instructed by classification.

  • True
  • False


A patient who is known to be HIV positive but who has no documented symptoms would be assigned code

  • 079.53
  • V08
  • 795.71
  • 042

A patient fell asleep on the beach and comes in with blistering on her back. She is diagnosed with second degree solar radiation burns.

  • 692.76
  • 692.72
  • 942.24
  • 692.82


A patient has a home health aide come to his home to clean and dress a burn on his lower leg. The aide uses a special absorptive, sterile dressing to cover a 20 sq. cm. area. She also covers a 15sq area with a self adhesive sterile gauze pad.

  • A6204, A6219
  • A6252, A6219
  • A6252, A6403
  • A6204, A6403

A 12 year old arrives in his pediatrician’s office after colliding with another player during a soccer game. He is complaining of pain in his right wrist. The physician orders an x-ray and diagnoses him with a hairline fracture of the distal radius. He has a short arm fiberglass cast applied and discharges him with follow up instructions.

  • Q4010
  • Q4022
  • Q4012
  • Q4009

A patient with Hodgkin’s disease takes Neosar as part of his chemotherapy regiment. He receives 100 mg once a week through intravenous infusion.

  • J8999
  • J9070
  • J7502
  • J9100

A patient with diabetes is fitted for custom molded shoes. What is the code range for such a fitting?

  • E0100-E8002
  • K0001-K0899
  • A5500-A5513
  • L3201-L3649

A 300lb. paraplegic needs a special sized wheelchair with fixed arm rests and elevating leg rests.

  • E1195
  • E1222
  • E1160
  • E1087

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam


A patient comes into her doctor’s office for her weekly blood sugar check. Her blood is drawn by the LPN on staff, the visit takes about 5 minutes total.

  • 99211
  • 99212
  • 99201

A three year old child is brought into the ER after swallowing a penny. A detailed history and exam are taken on the child and medical decision making is of moderate complexity. The child is admitted to observation for three hours and is then discharged home.

  • 99234
  • 99218; 99217
  • 99235
  • 99218

A 20 month old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and acute respiratory distress. The physician spends 3 minutes intubating the child and spends 90 minutes of Critical Care time stabilizing the patient.

  • 99471; 518.82; 486
  • 99291-25; 99292-25; 31500; 786.09; 486
  • 99471-25; 31500; 786.09; 486
  • 99291; 99292-25; 31500; 518.82; 486

At the request of a physician who is delivering for a high risk pregnancy, Dr. Smith, a pediatrician, is present in the delivery room to assist the infant if needed. After thirty minutes the infant is born, but is not breathing. The delivering physician hands the infant to Dr. Smith who provides chest compressions and resuscitates the infant. The pediatrician then performs the initial evaluation and management and admits the healthy newborn to the nursery. What codes should Dr. Smith submit on a claim?

  • 99360; 99465
  • 99465; 99460
  • 99360; 99460
  • 99360;99465; 99460


Mr. Johnson is a 79 year old established male patient that is seen by Dr. Anderson for his annual physical exam. During the examination Dr. Anderson notices a suspicious mole on Mr. Johnson’s back. The Doctor completes the annual exam and documents a detailed history and exam and the time discussing the patient’s need to quit smoking. Dr. Anderson then turns his attention to the mole and does a complete work up. He documents a comprehensive history and examination and medical decision making of moderate complexity. He also called a local dermatologist and made an appointment for Mr. Johnson to see him the next day for an evaluation and biopsy.

  • 99397, 99215
  • 99397, 99205
  • 99387, 99215
  • 99387, 99205

An E/M is made up of seven components six of which are used in defining the levels of E/M services. The seven components include History, Exam, Medical Decision Making, Counseling, Coordination of Care, Nature of Presenting Problem, and Time. Which six of these seven parts help define the level of the E/M service?

  • History, Exam, Medical Decision Making, Coordination of Care, Nature of Presenting Problem, and Time
  • History, Exam, Medical Decision Making, Counseling, Nature of Presenting Problem, and Time
  • History, Exam, Medical Decision Making, Counseling, Coordination of Care, and Nature of Presenting Problem
  • History, Exam, Medical Decision Making, Counseling, Coordination of Care, and Time


The correct anesthesia code for a ventral hernia repair on a 13 month old child is

  • 00820
  • 00832
  • 00834
  • 00830

A patient is placed under anesthesia to have an exploratory surgery done on her wrist. The surgeon utilizes a small fiber optic scope and investigates the radius, ulna, and surrounding wrist bones. What should the anesthesiologist code for?

  • 29840
  • 01830
  • 01820
  • 01829

When does anesthesia time begin?

  • After the induction of anesthesia is complete
  • During the pre-operative exam prior to entering the OR
  • When the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for the induction of anesthesia
  • Once the supervising physician signs over the patient’s care to the anesthesiologist


A five month old is brought into the operating room for open heart surgery. The surgeon performs a repair of a small hole that was found in the lining surrounding the patient’s heart. Anesthesia was provided as well as the assistance of an oxygenator pump.

  • 00560, 99100
  • 00561
  • 00567, 99100
  • 00561, 99100

A 72 year old male with a history of severe asthma is placed under anesthesia to have a long tendon in his upper arm repaired

  • 01714-P4
  • 01714-P3, 99100
  • 01716-P3
  • 01712-P4, 99100

Which of the following procedures can be coded separately when performed by the anesthesiologist?

  • Monitoring of an EKG
  • Capnography
  • Monitoring of a central venous line
  • Administration of blood

A female who is 17 weeks pregnant is rushed into the OR due to a ruptured tubal pregnancy. She has a severe hemorrhage and has an emergency laparoscopic tubal ligation.

  • 00851-P5, 99140
  • 00880-P4
  • 01965-P5
  • 00880-P5, 99140


A healthy five year old male is placed under anesthesia to have a biopsy taken from his left ear drum.

  • 00120-P1
  • 00124-P2
  • 00170-P2
  • 00126-P1


A 75 year old healthy male patient sustained a hip dislocation following a fall. He is taken to the OR and plans to be placed under general anesthesia prior to the hip reduction. The anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient at 8:15am. AT 8:30am the patient is induced with anesthesia and the anesthesiologist is monitoring the patient’s vitals, ECG, pulse ox, and capnography. The surgeon begins the reduction at 8:45am and completes the procedure at 9:15am. The anesthesiologist monitors the patient until 9:30am when he releases the patient to the nurse for post operative supervision. At 9:45am the patient is fully alert and taken to recovery.How many minutes of anesthesia time should the anesthesiologist charge for?

  • 30 minutes
  • 45 minutes
  • 1 hour
  • 1 hour and 15 minutes

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

CPC Exam 2013 Questions – Part 1

CPC Exam 2013 Questions

Medical Terminology

  1. The suffix –ectomy means
  • Cutting into
  • Surgical removal
  • A permanent opening
  • Surgical repair
  1. The acronym MMRV stands for
  • Measles, Mumps, and Rubella vaccine
  • Measles, Mumps, and Rosella vaccine
  • Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella
  • Measles, Mumps, Rosella, and Varicella


  1. MRI stands for
  • Micro-wave Recording Instrument
  • Medical Recording Instrument
  • Magnetic Resolution Image
  • Magnetic Resonance Imaging


  1. The term “Salpingo-Oophorectomy” refers to
  • The removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries
  • The surgical sampling or removal of a fertilized egg
  • Cutting into the fallopian tubes and ovaries for surgical purposes
  • Cutting into a fertilized egg for surgical purposes


  1. PERRLA stands for what?
  • Pupils Equivalent, Rapid in Response to Light and Accommodation
  • Pupil Equal , Rapid in Response to Light and Accommodation
  • Pupil Equivalent, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation
  • Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation


  1. Cryopreservation is a means of preserving something through
  • Saturation
  • Heat
  • Freezing
  • Chemicals


  1. Which of the following describes the removal of fluid from a body cavity
  • Arthrocentesis
  • Amniocentesis
  • Pericardiocentesis
  • Paracentesis


  1. If a surgeon cuts into a patient’s stomach he has performed a
  • Gastrectomy
  • Gastrotomy
  • Gastrostomy
  • Gastrorrhaphy


  1. The terms Nephro and Renal both refer to the same organ
  • True
  • False


  1. In the medical term myopathy the term pathy means disease. What is diseased?
  • Mind
  • Muscle
  • Eye
  • Nervous System




  1. The Radius is the
  • Outer bone located in the forearm
  • Outer bone located in the lower leg
  • Inner bone located in the forearm
  • Inner bone located in the lower leg


  1. The spleen belongs to what organ system?
  • Endocrine
  • Hemic and Lymphatic
  • Digestive
  • Nervous


  1. The portion of the femur bone that helps makes up the knee cap is considered what?
  • The posterior portion
  • The proximal portion
  • The distal portion
  • The dorsal portion


  1. How many regions are in the abdominopelvic cavity?
  • Four
  • Six
  • Eight
  • Nine


  1. The Midsagittal plane refers to what portion of the body?
  • Top
  • Middle
  • Bottom
  • Back

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam

  1. Which of the following is not part of the small intestine?
  • Duodenum
  • Ileum
  • Jejunum
  • Cecum



  1. The round window is located in the
  • Pericardium
  • Anterior aqueous chamber of the eye
  • Inner ear
  • Middle ear


  1. The point of an organ or body part nearest the point of attachments is
  • Distal
  • Proximal
  • Lateral
  • Medial


  1. One of the six major scapulohumeral muscles
  • Temporalis
  • Trapezius
  • Teres
  • Trigone


  1. The cardia fundus is
  • Part of the heart wall that causes contractions
  • Where to esophagus joins the stomach
  • A fungal infection that attacks the heart
  • Part of the female reproductive system


Coding Concepts


  1. CPT codes 22840-22848 are modifier 62 exempt?
  • True
  • False


  1. An ABN must be signed when?
  • Once the insurance company has denied payment
  • Before the service or procedure is provided to the patient
  • After services are rendered, but before the claim is filed
  • Once the denied claim has been appealed at the highest level


  1. Wound exploration codes include the following service (s) :
  • Exploration and repair
  • Exploration, including enlargement, removal of foreign body(ies), repair
  • Exploration, including enlargement, repair, and necessary grafting
  • Exploration, including enlargement, debridement, removal of foreign body(ies), minor vessel ligation, and repair


  1. The full description of CPT code 24925 is:
  • Secondary closure or scar revision
  • Amputation, secondary closure or scar revision
  • Amputation, arm through humerus; secondary closure or scar revision
  • Amputation, arm through humerus; with primary closure, secondary closure or scar revision


  1. Medical necessity means what?
  • Without treatment the patient will suffer permanent disability or death
  • The service requires medical treatment
  • The condition of the patient justifies the service provided
  • The care provided met quality standards


  1. The following statement does not apply to what code type: These codes are never stand alone codes and never primary codes.
  • E codes
  • Add on codes
  • Late effect codes
  • V codes


  1. Which of the following codes allows the use of modifier 51?
  • 20975
  • 93600
  • 31500
  • 45392


  1. Category III codes are temporary codes for emerging technology, services, and procedures. If a category III code exists it should be used instead of an “unlisted procedure” code in category I (example of an unlisted category I code: 60699).
  • True
  • False


  1. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Medicare Part A
  • It helps cover home health care charges
  • It helps cover skilled nursing facility charges
  • It helps cover hospice charges
  • It helps cover outpatient charges


  1. Which of the following is not one of the three components of HIPAA that is enforced by the office for civil rights?
  • Protecting the privacy of individually identifiable health information
  • Setting national standards for the security of electronic protected health information
  • Protecting identifiable information being used to analyze patient safety events and improve patient safety
  • Setting national standards regarding the transmission and use of protected health information

Donloadable CPC Practice Exam